a) Prove that f(I–√)⊂f(I)−−−−√.
Let x∈f(I–√) be an arbitrary element. Then there is a∈I–√ such that f(a)=x. As a∈I–√, there exists a positive integer n such that an∈I.
It follows that we have
xn=f(a)n=f(an)∈f(I).
This implies that x∈f(I)−−−−√.
Hence we have f(I–√)⊂f(I)−−−−√.
Prove that f−1(I′)−−−−−−√=f−1(I′−−√)
(⊂) Let x∈f−1(I′)−−−−−−√. Then there is a positive integer n such that xn∈f−1(I′) and thus f(xn)∈I′.
As f is a ring homomorphism, it follows that f(x)n=f(xn)∈I′.
Hence f(x)∈I′−−√, and then x∈f−1(I′−−√).
This proves that f−1(I′)−−−−−−√⊂f−1(I′−−√).
(⊃) Let x∈f−1(I′−−√). Then f(x)∈I′−−√. It follows that there exists a positive integer n such that f(xn)=f(x)n∈I′.Hence xn∈f−1(I′), and we deduce that x∈f−1(I′)−−−−−−√.
This proves that f−1(I′−−√)⊂f−1(I′)−−−−−−√.
Combining this with the previous inclusion yields that f−1(I′)−−−−−−√=f−1(I′−−√)
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